NO.19/ ON ANTICHRIST #10 TIMING
“Again, this is why Jesus only rebuked Israel. It was not time for the Gentiles. Their moment in the SON would come after Salvation was offered to the Jews. Paul called it “the fullness of the Gentiles.” (Rom. 11:25) ”
When reading the Book of Revelation, have you ever given strong thought to WHEN the book was written? Yes, I know John wrote the book back in the first century. I'm only asking because Jesus gave John a specific instruction that you and I will have to correctly decipher. He said,
"Write the things which you have seen, and the things which are, and the things which will take place after this." (Rev. 1:17 NKJV)
Seems simple enough. John is being told to write in three time elements; the past, present, and future. The question is, in what time frame are we to be reading it? From his perspective 2000 years ago? Is that when we were to begin expecting "things which must shortly take place" (Rev. 1:1)? By the way, John went on to write that "the time is near" (v.3) also lending to this same question ... what does "near" mean and WHEN are we to start counting?
YES! I know that "with the Lord, one day is as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day" (2 Pet. 3:8). But who needs a Scripture most don't understand or others who think they do, mis-apply? I'm simply offering a thought to ponder: In WHAT TIME FRAME are we to read John's "revelation?" His time? Our time? Did things "shortly come to pass" 1500 years ago? 1000? 500? WHEN do I start counting and expecting things to "shortly come to pass?"
Are you getting my drift?
There is also another part of this book that's central in its importance to the church. Along with an unveiling of Jesus who, once we saw Him "as He is" we would "know what we are like" (this speaks directly to our transformation into all that He is), Jesus can be seen doing stuff; things important for you and I to understand - like END TIME FUNCTIONS for a lack of a better way to say it. More on this later.
For now, let me draw your attention to an event that happened back in the days of Jesus and recorded for us in the 23rd chapter of Matthew's gospel. There, we find Jesus reprimanding the scribes and Pharisees for their hypocrisy. And while the whole chapter is worth the read, I want to focus our attention to one point in particular. With a conclusive statement at the end of His rebuke, Jesus laid out the consequence for their obstinance,
"On you may come all the righteous blood shed on the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel to the blood of Zechariah whom you murdered between the temple and the altar. ASSUREDLY, I SAY TO YOU, ALL THESE THINGS WILL COME UPON THIS GENERATION" (Matt. 23:35-36 NKJV)
Several things to note here. First, this rebuke was for more than just a selected group of scribes and Pharisees. It was for a WHOLE GENERATION of Jews living in Israel. Also note that this same "generation" was going to be held accountable for the murders of people WHO DIDN'T LIVE DURING THEIR TIME; like Abel for instance. Cain killed him. The question for you and I to answer correctly is, why hold "this generation" accountable for crimes committed by others thousands of years earlier?
The answer to that question is worthy of its own book. I'm only bringing it up to ask a question we CAN answer right NOW.
WHY DID JESUS HOLD THE NATION OF ISRAEL ACCOUNTABLE FOR THE SPILLING OF INNOCENT BLOOD AND NOT THE OTHER NATIONS OF THE WORLD WHO WERE DOING THE SAME THINGS DURING THE SAME TIME PERIOD?
Have you ever thought about this before?
The answer lies is us understanding that Jesus is "the true light which gives light to every man coming into the world." (John 1:9). With God no longer reliant on the Law to expose sin, Jesus would NOW be the standard by which ALL men were measured by. That's you and me folks!
As to how this applies to Matthew 23, Jesus "came to his own" (John 1:11) FIRST and LIT THEM UP. Everyone's heart was exposed; EVERYONES! With no place to hide, Jesus would require that they all tell the truth and repent of their sins. He would also require this same thing of the Gentile nations; it just wasn't their time ... yet! Had it been, they would have been included in the rebuke as well.
Paul made mention of this when he told the Romans,
"I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ, for it is the power of God to salvation for everyone who believes, FOR THE JEW FIRST AND ALSO FOR THE GREEK." (Rom. 1:16)
As you can see, God has a pre-planned order in how He chooses to offer His Salvation message. It went to the Jews first and would subsequently be preached to the Gentiles once Jesus had ascended to Heaven and baptized His church with the Holy Spirit. Then, and only then, would He send His church out into the world to evangelize the nations with the same offer of Salvation AND THE SAME OFFER OF JUDGEMENT FOR THEIR REFUSAL.
"God will render to each one according to his deeds" eternal life to those who by patient continuance in doing good seek for glory, honor, and immortality; but to those who are self-seeking and do not obey the truth, but obey unrighteousness- indignation and wrath, tribulation and anguish, on every soul of man who does evil, OF THE JEW FIRST AND ALSO OF THE GREEK; but glory, honor, and peace to everyone who works what is good, TO THE JEW FIRST AND ALSO TO THE GREEK." (Rom. 2:6-10)
Again, this is why Jesus only rebuked Israel. It was not time for the Gentiles. Their moment in the SON would come after Salvation was offered to the Jews. Paul called it "the fullness of the Gentiles." (Rom. 11:25) Make sense?
With these things in mind, now look at a passage in Revelation that speaks to this very subject.
"I went to the angel and said to him, 'Give me the little book.' And he said to me, 'Take and eat it; and it will make your stomach bitter, but it will be as sweet as honey in your mouth." (Rev.10:9)
The picture we're being shown is John eating God's Word for that moment and hour. The sweetness in his mouth is because God's word is always sweet. The bitterness to his stomach is because the WORD John is going to speak is harsh judgment. More on this in a moment.
What might be of surprise is that this event of someone eating a book and it being sweet in the mouth and bitter in the belly has happened before ... with Ezekiel (EZE. 3).
EXCEPT FOR ONE DIFFERENCE!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
Ezekiel was sent to the HOUSE OF ISRAEL to prophesy judgment, a judgment that found fulfillment in 70 A.D. when Rome came and conquered the Jewish nation of Israel. John is told, "YOU MUST PROPHESY AGAIN ABOUT MANY PEOPLES, NATIONS, TONGUES, AND KINGS." (Rev. 10:11). These are the Gentile nations who were spared judgment in 70 A.D. simply because Jesus had not appeared to them (YET) to LIGHT them up!
Seriously folks! I don't know about you, but this is starting to perk my interest!!
Later.
